Look - in *any* alleged offence or crime, when a suspect is being questioned, the police do *not* just take the first answer they are given as being gospel. If they did that then no-one would ever be convicted of anything. It is the job of the police to bring guilty people to justice - is it not?
This is not actually the case. If an owner can show that several different people have access to and use the vehicle of which he is the registered keeper, and if he can show that he is genuinely unable to determine who was driving the vehicle at the time stated then there will be no charge. Several vehicle owners have gone along this route and not been convicted of anything. The fact is, however, that as the owner of a motor vehicle you have certain responsibilities - one of those responsibilities, I would suggest, is knowing who is driving it and when so that you can fulfil your duty as a citizen in bringing guilty people to justice.
No - it's not a trumped up charge for the reasons I've given above. Very serious offences can be committed with a motor car - including causing rest. It is entirely right that the owner of a motor vehicle should be expected to state who was using the vehicle at any particular time.
See above.
Kev
Last Weeks Traffic Cops 5064On Thu, 10 Feb 2005 13:46:53 -0000, Uno Hoo! Irrelevant, you wanted to know how "the requirement for the owner of a motor vehicle to state who was driving his car at the...